Local Laws MCQ Quiz - Objective Question with Answer for Local Laws - Download Free PDF

The correct answer is Section 2 (4)

Key Points

• Section 2(4) specifically defines “Habitual Defaulter” as:
  • "A tenant who fails in a period of 12 months on three or more occasions to pay in full the rent and all dues to the landlord on the due date in accordance with the agreement." 
• The other sub-sections of Section 2 cover definitions such as “Accommodation”, “Agreement”, and “District”, and do not deal with habitual defaulters.

Additional Information

• Section 2(1) – Defines “Accommodation”, not habitual defaulters.
• Section 2(3) – Defines “District”, not relevant.
• Section 2(5) – Defines “Landlord”, again unrelated.

The correct answer is Schedule 1 of the Act

Key Points

• The tenant has the right to receive a copy of the tenancy agreement at the commencement of the tenancy.
• The tenant has the right to receive receipts for all payments made to the landlord, including:
  • Security deposit
  • Rent
  • Any other payments
• The tenant has the right to receive the accommodation in good and tenantable condition before occupying it.
• The tenant has the right to enjoy quiet possession of the accommodation, subject to:
  • Regular payment of rent
  • Using the accommodation for the purpose it was leased for
• In case of death or mental incapacitation of the tenant, the tenant’s widow/wife automatically becomes the tenant, provided she signs a supplemental agreement accepting all rights and obligations of the original agreement.
• The tenant has the right to all facilities and amenities attached to the accommodation in proper working condition.
• The tenant has the right to routine annual upkeep and maintenance, which includes:
  • The landlord carrying out annual upkeep and face-lifting
  • Or the tenant getting the work done and being reimbursed by the landlord (reimbursement not exceeding one month’s rent for every block of eleven months of occupancy)
• The tenant is protected against willful disconnection of essential services (like water and electricity) by the landlord or his agents.
• The tenant enjoys security of tenancy, subject to the landlord’s rights mentioned in Schedule 2 of the Act.​

Additional Information

• Schedule 2 – Landlord's Rights available under the Act
• Schedule 3 – Landlord's obligations under the Act
• Schedule 4 – Tenant's obligations under the Act

The correct answer is Deputy Collector

Key Points

• As per various State Rent Control Acts (such as the Chhattisgarh Rent Control Act, or similar Acts in other states), the Rent Controller is generally an officer not below the rank of Deputy Collector.
• This ensures that the person handling rent-related disputes has sufficient administrative and legal experience.
• The specific provision may vary slightly by state law, but Deputy Collector is the most commonly prescribed minimum rank.
• As per section 7 Establishment of Rent Controller
  • The State Government is responsible for appointing Rent Controllers.
  • For every district, the State Government may appoint one or more officers as Rent Controllers.
  • The appointed officers must be not below the rank of Deputy Collector.
  • The territorial jurisdiction of each Rent Controller will be specified by the District Collector.
  • The Rent Controller is subordinate to the Rent Control Tribunal.

Additional Information

• Tahsildar – Lower in rank than Deputy Collector; not eligible.
• Assistant Superintendent – Not a revenue rank typically linked with judicial functions.
• Civil Judge – Judicial officer, not administrative; Rent Controller is usually an executive officer.

The correct answer is Limitation of suits

Key Points

Additional Information

• Recovery of Government dues – Covered under another section, not Section 66.
• Power of State Government to exempt from the provisions of the Act – This is dealt with under Section 64, not 66.
• Power to search without warrant – Falls under Section 50, not Section 66.

The correct answer is Section 45

Key Points

• This provision applies to a person who has already been convicted earlier under any of the following sections:
• Section 34, Section 35, Section 36, Section 36-A, Section 36-B, Section 36-C, or Section 40.
• (It also includes similar provisions under any previous law which has now been repealed by this Act.)
• If the same person commits and is convicted again for an offence under any of these same sections, the punishment becomes twice the punishment which is applicable for a first conviction under this Act.
• This means the law provides for enhanced punishment for repeat offenders.
• The provision includes a safeguard:
  • Even if enhanced punishment applies, it does not affect the summary trial procedure available under Chapter XXI of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973.
  • If the case qualifies for summary trial, it can still be tried summarily.​

 Additional Information

• Section 34(1) – Deals with punishment for first-time offences, not repeat offences.
• Section 36 – Related to penalties for other specific offences, not enhancement on second conviction.
• Section 34(2) – if a person is convicted for an offence covered by clause (a) or clause (b) of 34 (1) and the quantity of the intoxicant being liquor found at the time or in the course of detection of the offence exceeds [five bulk litre] punishable.

 Key Points

The Indian Act that makes it illegal to knowingly spread a computer virus is the Information Technology Act, of 2000.

This act was enacted to provide legal recognition for electronic transactions and to protect electronic data from unauthorized access, modification, and destruction.

Section 43 of the Information Technology Act, of 2000 specifically deals with penalties for damage to computer systems, and it includes provisions for punishing those who spread computer viruses.

• Section 43 deals with penalties for damage to computer systems and data.

• It includes provisions for punishing those who gain unauthorized access to a computer system, computer network, or computer resource.

• The section specifies punishment of imprisonment for up to three years and/or a fine of up to INR 500,000 (approximately USD 6,800) for offenses related to damage to computer systems, data, and networks.

• The section also allows for the payment of compensation for any loss or damage caused due to the offense.

• The punishment under Section 43 can be enhanced in case of repeat offenses or damage to critical infrastructure such as power grids or government computer systems

Therefore, the correct option is option 3) Information Technology Act, 2000.

​Important Points   Information Technology Act, 2000.

• The act defines various cyber crimes, which include hacking, phishing, identity theft, virus attacks, denial of service attacks, and distribution of obscene content, among others.
• The act provides legal provisions for the investigation and prosecution of these cyber crimes.
• Hacking is defined as gaining unauthorized access to a computer system, computer network, or computer resource.
• Phishing is defined as the act of fraudulently obtaining sensitive information such as passwords and credit card details by impersonating a trustworthy entity.
• Identity theft is defined as the act of fraudulently assuming another person's identity for financial gain.
• Virus attacks are defined as the act of intentionally spreading computer viruses to damage computer systems, data, and networks.
• Denial of service attacks is defined as the act of disrupting the normal functioning of a computer system or network by overwhelming it with traffic.

• The IT Act, of 2000 was enacted to provide legal recognition to electronic transactions, facilitate e-governance, and prevent cyber crimes in India.

• he acts specifies punishments for various offenses, which range from imprisonment for up to three years and/or a fine of up to INR 500,000 (approximately USD 6,800) for the first offense to imprisonment for up to ten years and/or a fine of up to INR 1 crore (approximately USD 138,000) for repeat offenses.

• The act also provides for the establishment of a Cyber Appellate Tribunal to hear appeals against orders passed by adjudicating officers appointed under the act.

In summary, the IT Act, of 2000 covers various types of cyber crimes such as hacking, phishing, identity theft, virus attacks, denial of service attacks, and distribution of obscene content, among others, and provides legal provisions for their investigation and prosecution.

Additional Information 

The Information Technology (Amendment) 2008 Act has been debated since it was passed by the Indian Parliament in December 2008, about a month after the terrorist attacks in Mumbai. The new IT Act empowers the Indian government to intercept, monitor, and decrypt computer systems, resources, and communication devices.

The objective of this Indian Penal Code is to provide a general Penal Code for India. Though this Code consolidates the whole of the law on the subject and is exhaustive on the matters in respect of which it declares the law, many more penal statutes governing various offenses have been created in addition to this code.

The correct answer is option 2.Key Points

• Section 25 of Rajasthan Rent Control Act 2001 deals with Inspection of premises.
• It says the landlord shall have a right to inspect the premises let out by him at day time after giving prior intimation of at least seven days to the tenant.
• However, such inspection shall not be carried out by the landlord more than once in three months.

The correct answer is option 3.Key Points

• Section 8 of Rajasthan Rent Control Act 2001 deals with Limited period tenancy.
• (l) A landlord may let out the premises for residential purposes for a limited period not exceeding three years.
• (2) In such cases the landlord and the proposed tenant shall submit a joint petition before the Rent Tribunal for permission to enter into the limited period tenancy and for grant of certificate for recovery of possession.
• (3) The rent tribunal shall grant permission immediately and issue certificate for recovery of possession of such premises executable on expiry of the period mentioned in the certificate. However, such permission shall not be granted for more than three times for the same premises:
  • Provided that the certificate for recovery of possession issued in this section shall lapse if petition for execution thereof has not been filed before the Tribunal within six months from the date such certificate becomes executable.

The correct answer is option 3. Key Points

• Section 19 of Rajasthan Rent Control Act 2001 deals with Appellate Rent Tribunal, Appeals and limitation thereof.
• (1) The State Government shall constitute such number of Appellate Rent Tribunals and at such places as may be deemed necessary by it, by notification in the Official Gazette.
• (2) Where two or more Appellate Rent Tribunals are constituted for any area, the State Government may, by general or special order, regulate the distribution of business among them.
• (3) An Appellate Rent Tribunal shall consist of one person only (hereinafter referred to as the Presiding Officer of the Appellate Rent Tribunal) to be appointed by the High Court.
• (4) No person shall be eligible to be appointed as Presiding Officer of the Appellate Rent Tribunal unless he is a member of the District judge cadre Service having not less than three years experience as such.
• (5) Notwithstanding anything contained in sub-section (3), the High Court may authorise the Presiding Officer of one Appellate Rent Tribunal to discharge the functions of the Presiding Officer of the another Appellate Rent Tribunal also.
• (6) From every final order passed by the Rent Tribunal, an appeal shall lie to the Appellate Rent Tribunal, within the local limits of whose jurisdiction the premises is situated and such an appeal shall be filed within a period of sixty days from the date of final order alongwith copy of such final order.

सही उत्तर है - परिश्रम का फल अवश्य मिलता है। 

• जो परिश्रमी होते हैं भले ही सफलता उन्हें देर से मिले लेकिन एक दिन अवश्य अपनी मंजिल पाने में सफल होते हैं।
• इसलिए परिश्रम का फल अवश्य मिलता है। 

Key Points
इसी लोकोक्ति से मिलता कबीर का एक दोहा भी है - 

• जिन खोजा तिन पाइया, गहरे पानी पैठ, मैं बपुरा बूडन डरा, रहा किनारे बैठ।
• अर्थात -  जो प्रयत्न करते हैं, वे कुछ न कुछ वैसे ही पा ही लेते  हैं जैसे कोई मेहनत करने वाला गोताखोर गहरे पानी में जाता है और कुछ ले कर आता है. लेकिन कुछ बेचारे लोग ऐसे भी होते हैं जो डूबने के भय से किनारे पर ही बैठे रह जाते हैं और कुछ नहीं पाते.
• ​ बिना प्रयास के लाभ होने की स्थिति को वर्णित करने के लिए हिन्दी भाषा में एक लोकप्रिय लोकोक्ति है: "आम के आम गुठलियों के दाम"। इसका अर्थ है कि मुख्य लाभ के साथ-साथ अतिरिक्त लाभ भी प्राप्त हो रहा है, बिना अतिरिक्त प्रयास के।
• काम करने में शीघ्रता दिखाने को व्यक्त करने के लिए हिन्दी लोकोक्ति है: "हाथी के पाँव में सबका पाँव।" इसका अर्थ होता है कि किसी कार्य को बहुत तेजी से और प्रभावशाली ढंग से करना। लेकिन इसे सामान्यतः ताकत और प्रभाव के सन्दर्भ में ज्यादा प्रयोग किया जाता है, जो कि शीघ्रता को भी दर्शा सकता है क्योंकि ताकतवर व्यक्ति या संगठन त्वरित निर्णय ले सकते हैं।

The correct option is The premises belonging to the Government company as defined under the Companies Act, 1956.

Key Points

• Section 3 of the Rajasthan Rent Control Act of 2001, the Chapter II and III thereof do not apply to:
  • (i) to the new premises built or completed after the commencement of this Act and let out through a registered deed in which date of completion of such premises is mentioned;
  • (ii) to the premises existing at the commencement of this Act, if let out after such commencement for a period of five years or more through a registered deed and tenancy is not terminable before expiry of its duration at the option of the landlord;
  • (iii) to any premises let out for residential purposes before or after the commencement of this Act, the monthly rent whereof is-
    • (a) rupees seven thousand or more, in the case of the premises situated in the municipal area of Jaipur city;
    • (b) rupees four thousand or more, in the case of premises let out at places situated in the municipal areas comprising the Divisional Headquarters, Jodhpur, Ajmer, Kota, Udaipur and Bikaner;
    • (c) rupees two thousand or more, in the case of premises let out at places situated in the other municipal areas to which this Act extends for the time being;
  • (iv) to any premises belonging to or let out by the Central Government or the State Government or a Local authority;
  • (v) to any premises belonging to or let out by any body corporate constituted by a central Act or a Rajasthan Act;
  • (vi) to any premises belonging to a Government Company as defined under section 617 of the Companies Act, 1956 (Central Act No. 43 of 1995);
  • (vii) to any premises belonging to the Devasthan Department of the State, Which are managed and controlled by the State Government or to any property of a Wakf, registered under Wakf Act, 1995 (Central Act No. 43 of 1995);
  • (viii) to any premises belonging to such religious, charitable or educational trust or class of such trusts as may be specified by the State Government by notification in the Official Gazette;
  • (ix) to any premises belonging to or vested in a University established by any law for the time being in force;
  • (x) to any premises let to banks, or any Public Sector Undertakings or any Corporation established by or under any Central or State Act, or multinational companies, and private limited companies or public limited companies having a paid up share capital of rupees one crore or more;
    • Explanation.- For the purpose of this clause the expression "bank" means,-
      • (i) the State Bank of India constituted under the State Bank of India Act, 1955 (Central Act No. 23 of 1955);
      • (ii) a subsidiary bank as defined in the State Bank of India (Subsidiary Banks) Act, 1959 (Central Act No. 38 of 1959);
      • (iii) a corresponding new bank constituted under section 3 of the Banking Companies (Acquisition and Transfer of Undertakings) Act, 1970 (Central Act No. 5 of 1970) or under section 3 of the Banking Companies (Acquisition and Transfer of Undertaking) Act, 1980 (Central Act No. 40 of 1980);
      • (iv) any other bank, being a scheduled bank as defined in clause (e) of section 2 of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 (Central Act No. 2 of 1934);
  • (xi) to any premises let out to a citizen of a foreign country or to an Embassy, High Commission, Legation or other Body of a foreign State, or such international organization as may be specified by the State Government by notification in the Official Gazette.

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points According to Section 10 of the Rajasthan Rent Control Act, 2001, a landlord is entitled to immediate possession of a residential property if they file a petition with the Rent Tribunal within a specific time frame:

• Within one year before or after their retirement, release, or discharge from the armed forces or paramilitary forces
• Within one year before or after their retirement from a central, state, or local government job, or from a state-owned corporation
• More than three years after the property was let out, if they are a senior citizen 

The correct answer is 'City survey officers'.

Key Points

• Role of City Survey Officers:
  • City survey officers are responsible for conducting land measurement and boundary verification in urban areas. Their primary role includes ensuring proper demarcation of land boundaries within cities.
  • They utilize advanced surveying tools and techniques such as GPS, total stations, and GIS to accurately measure land parcels and prepare maps or records.
  • They play a critical role in resolving disputes related to land boundaries and ensuring proper documentation of land ownership.
  • City survey officers work in coordination with municipal authorities and land revenue departments to maintain updated land records and prevent encroachments.

Additional Information

• Municipality Officers:
  • Municipality officers primarily focus on urban governance, civic amenities, waste management, and infrastructure development, but they are not directly responsible for land measurement or boundary determination.
  • While they may coordinate with city survey officers for urban planning, land measurement is not their specialized domain.
• Land Acquisition Officers:
  • Land acquisition officers deal with acquiring land for government or public purposes, such as infrastructure projects, under legal frameworks like the Land Acquisition Act.
  • They do not perform technical land measurement or boundary identification tasks, which fall under the purview of city survey officers.
• Law Enforcement Officers:
  • Law enforcement officers are responsible for maintaining law and order, crime prevention, and public safety, but they do not handle technical aspects of land measurement or boundary verification.
  • They may intervene in land disputes only from a legal enforcement perspective, not for surveying or measurement purposes.

The correct answer is '80% of landholders'.

Key Points

• Land Acquisition for Public Purposes:
  • The process of land acquisition refers to the government acquiring private land for public purposes, such as infrastructure development, industrial projects, or urbanization.
  • When the land is acquired for private companies but serves a public purpose, the law mandates prior consent from the affected landholders.
  • According to the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013 (commonly known as the Land Acquisition Act, 2013), at least 80% of the affected families (landholders) must give their consent for such acquisitions.
  • This provision ensures that land acquisition is participatory and just, minimizing forced displacement and addressing concerns of affected communities.

Additional Information

• Analysis of Incorrect Options:
  • 60%: This option is incorrect because the consent requirement for private companies serving public purposes is set higher to ensure wider participation and agreement among landholders.
  • 50%: This threshold is applicable in specific cases where public-private partnerships are involved, but not for private companies acquiring land directly for public purposes.
  • 70%: While closer to the correct percentage, this figure is still below the legal threshold of 80% mandated by the Land Acquisition Act, 2013.
• Purpose of the 80% Threshold:
  • The high threshold ensures that a significant majority of landholders agree to the acquisition, reducing the likelihood of disputes and ensuring fairness.
  • It reflects a balance between development needs and the protection of landholders' rights.
• Rehabilitation and Resettlement:
  • The Land Acquisition Act, 2013 also emphasizes fair compensation and mandatory rehabilitation and resettlement for affected families, ensuring that their livelihoods are not adversely impacted.

The correct answer is '1950'

Key Points

• Zamindari Abolition Act:
  • The Zamindari Abolition Act was a landmark legislation aimed at abolishing the Zamindari system, which existed under colonial rule and continued after India's independence.
  • The act sought to remove the intermediaries (zamindars) between the government and the peasants, transferring land ownership directly to the tillers of the soil.
  • It was first passed in the year 1950, shortly after India gained independence, as part of land reform measures undertaken by the government.
  • Uttar Pradesh was the first state to implement this act under the leadership of the then Chief Minister Govind Ballabh Pant.
  • The act aimed to eliminate exploitation by zamindars, ensure social equity, and improve agricultural productivity by empowering farmers.

Additional Information

• Other options and why they are incorrect:
  • 1932: This year predates India's independence and the land reform movement. No significant steps were taken to abolish the Zamindari system during colonial rule as the British relied on zamindars for revenue collection.
  • 1948: Although land reforms were being discussed during this period, the Zamindari Abolition Act was not implemented until 1950 due to the need for detailed planning and constitutional provisions.
  • 1965: This year is too late, as the Zamindari system had already been abolished in most states by the 1950s. By 1965, the focus had shifted to other aspects of agricultural reforms like Green Revolution practices.
• Impact of the Zamindari Abolition Act:
  • The act was a crucial step towards land redistribution and social justice in India.
  • It helped dismantle the feudal structure of land ownership and empowered millions of farmers.
  • However, challenges like improper implementation, legal loopholes, and resistance from zamindars limited its effectiveness in some areas.