CPC MCQ Quiz - Objective Question with Answer for CPC - Download Free PDF

Last updated on Jun 3, 2025

Latest CPC MCQ Objective Questions

CPC Question 1:

Under Civil Procedure Code, 1908 “Foreign Court” means:-

  1. A court situated outside India
  2. A court situated outside India and not established under the authority of Government of India
  3. A court situated in India, applying foreign law
  4. All of the above

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 1 : A court situated outside India

CPC Question 1 Detailed Solution

The correct answer is A court situated outside India

Key Points 

  • Under the Civil Procedure Code, 1908, the term “Foreign Court” simply means any court situated outside India, regardless of whether it is established under the authority of the Government of India or not.
  • The key point is the geographical location outside India.

Additional Information

  • Option 2. A court situated outside India and not established under the authority of Government of India — Too narrow; all courts outside India are foreign courts regardless of authority.
  • Option 3. A court situated in India, applying foreign law — Not a foreign court; location matters, not the law applied.
  • Option 4. All of the above — Incorrect as one option refers to a court within India, which is not a foreign court

CPC Question 2:

During proceedings for execution of a decree, if question arises as whether any person is or is not the representative of a party, such question must be determined by:-

  1. The court which passed the decree
  2. The court executing the decree
  3. The appellate court
  4. None of the above

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 1 : The court which passed the decree

CPC Question 2 Detailed Solution

The correct answer is The court which passed the decree

Key Points

  • When a question arises during execution about whether a person is the representative of a party to the decree, the determination is to be made by the court which originally passed the decree.
  • This is because the original court has the jurisdiction to decide matters relating to the parties and their legal representatives.

Additional Information

  • Option 2. The court executing the decree — Incorrect: Execution court handles execution only, not questions about representation.
  • Option 3. The appellate court — Incorrect: The appellate court deals with appeals, not execution or representation issues.
  • Option 4. None of the above — Incorrect: The correct court is specifically the one which passed the decree

CPC Question 3:

Which of the following order of CPC is related to “Set-off” and “counter-claims”:-

  1. Order VI
  2. Order VIII
  3. Order VII
  4. Order IX

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 2 : Order VIII

CPC Question 3 Detailed Solution

The correct answer Order VIII

Key Points

  • Order VIII of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908 deals with the written statement, set-off, and counter-claims by the defendant in a civil suit.
  • It gives the defendant an opportunity to respond to the plaint and also to:
  • Claim a set-off: When the defendant claims that the plaintiff owes him a debt which can be adjusted against the claim.
  • Make a counter-claim: Where the defendant brings a separate claim against the plaintiff in the same proceeding, effectively turning it into a cross-suit.
  • Rules 6 to 6G of Order VIII specifically cover set-off and counter-claim provisions.

 Additional Information

  • Option 1. Order VI – Incorrect: It deals with pleadings in general, not with set-off or counter-claims.
  • Option 3. Order VII – Incorrect: It relates to the plaint (i.e., the statement of claim by the plaintiff), not the defence or counter-claims.
  • Option 4. Order IX – Incorrect: This covers appearance of parties and consequences of non-appearance, not set-off or counter-claims.

CPC Question 4:

A “Garneeshe order” under Civil Procedure Code, 1908 is issued to:-

  1. Judgement debtor
  2. Judgement debtor’s creditor
  3. Decree holder
  4. Judgement debtor’s debtor

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 4 : Judgement debtor’s debtor

CPC Question 4 Detailed Solution

The correct answer is Judgement debtor’s debtor

Key Points

  • A Garnishee Order is a judicial order under Order 21 Rules 46 to 46B of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908.
  • It is issued by the court to a third party (called the garnishee) who owes money to the judgment debtor, instructing them not to release that money to the debtor but instead to pay it directly to the decree holder.
  • The purpose is to recover money from the judgment debtor indirectly, by targeting those who owe the debtor (i.e., debtor’s debtor).
  • This mechanism is especially useful in cases of recovery of debt when the judgment debtor is unwilling or unable to pay directly.

Additional Information

  • Option 1. Judgment debtor – Incorrect: The garnishee order is enforced against someone who owes money to the judgment debtor, not the debtor himself.
  • Option 2. Judgment debtor’s creditor – Incorrect: This person is owed by the debtor and is irrelevant for garnishment.
  • Option 3. Decree holder – Incorrect: They receive the payment but are not the one ordered by the court under a garnishee order.

CPC Question 5:

Under which provision of CPC attachment before judgement is provided:-

  1. Order 39 Rule 1, 2
  2. Order 40 Rule 1
  3. Section 96
  4. Order 38 Rules 5-13

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 4 : Order 38 Rules 5-13

CPC Question 5 Detailed Solution

The correct answer is Order 38 Rules 5–13

Key Points

  • Attachment before judgment is a preventive remedy under the Civil Procedure Code (CPC), 1908.
  • It is governed by Order 38 Rules 5 to 13, which allows the court to attach the property of the defendant before judgment to prevent frustration of the decree.
  • This provision is used when the court is satisfied that the defendant is trying to remove or dispose of property to defeat the execution of a potential decree.
  • The court can order conditional attachment and require the defendant to furnish security to avoid such attachment.
  • The procedure ensures that plaintiffs are not left without remedy due to fraudulent actions by the defendant.

Additional Information

  • Option 1. Order 39 Rule 1, 2 – Incorrect: This relates to temporary injunctions, not attachment before judgment.
  • Option 2. Order 40 Rule 1 – Incorrect: This deals with the appointment of a receiver, not attachment.
  • Option 3. Section 96 – Incorrect: This provides for a first appeal, not preventive remedies like attachment

 

Top CPC MCQ Objective Questions

Which of the following statements is not correct with respect to the Parliament of India?

  1. The President summons each house of the Parliament to meet.
  2. The President declares the House adjourned sine die.
  3. Prorogation of the house is done by President.
  4. Prorogation terminates a session of the House.

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 2 : The President declares the House adjourned sine die.

CPC Question 6 Detailed Solution

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Option 2 is not correct.

Key Points

  • The Parliament shall meet at least twice a year. The maximum gap between two sessions of the Parliament cannot be more than six months.
  • The President from time to time summons each house of the Parliament to meet.
  • There are usually three sessions in a year :
    • Budget session
    • Monsoon session
    • Winter session
  • A sitting of a parliament can be terminated by adjournment or adjournment sine die or prorogation or dissolution.
  • Adjournment: It suspends the work in a sitting for a specified time, which may be hours, days, and weeks.
  • Adjournment sine die: It means terminating a sitting of Parliament for an indefinite period.
    • The power of adjournment sine die lies with the presiding officer of the House and not the president. Hence, Option 2 is correct answer of this question.

Additional Information

  • Prorogation: After the presiding officer declares the House adjourned sine die, within the next few days, the President issues a notification for the prorogation of the session.
    • However, the President can also prorogue the house while in session.
  • Dissolution: It ends the very life of the existing house and a new house is constituted after general elections are held.
    • Rajya Sabha being a permanent house is not subject to dissolution, while Lok Sabha is subject to dissolution.

According to which Order, no decree to be set aside without notice to opposite party under which of the in the CPC?

  1. Order 5, Rule 30
  2. Order 4, Rule 13
  3. Order 6, Rule 10
  4. Order 9, Rule 14

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 4 : Order 9, Rule 14

CPC Question 7 Detailed Solution

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The Correct answer is Order 9, Rule 14.

Key Points

  • Order 9, Rule 14 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 deals with the service of summons on a defendant who is a corporation.

The rule states that:

  • Where the defendant is a corporation, the summons shall be served by delivering it to the managing agent or secretary or treasurer of the corporation.
  • If there is no managing agent, secretary, or treasurer, or if such managing agent, secretary, or treasurer cannot be found within the jurisdiction of the Court, the summons shall be served by affixing a copy thereof to some conspicuous part of the corporation's place of business.
  • In the case of a foreign corporation, the summons may be served in the manner prescribed in Order XXX, rules 3 and 4.
  • Order 9 Rule 14 also provides that the Court may, in any case, direct that the summons shall be served in such manner as it thinks fit.

A suit for compensation for wrong done to the person or to moveable property, where the wrong was done within the local jurisdiction of one court and the defendant resides within the local limits of another court:

  1. can be instituted in the court within whose local jurisdiction the wrong has been committed.
  2. can be instituted in the court within whose local jurisdiction the defendant resides.
  3. either (a) or (b) at the option of the plaintiff.
  4. None of above.

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 3 : either (a) or (b) at the option of the plaintiff.

CPC Question 8 Detailed Solution

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 The Correct answer is Either (a) or (b) at the option of the plaintiff.

Key Points

  • Section 19 of CPC provides  Suits for compensation for wrongs to person or movables.
    Where a suit is for compensation for wrong done to the person or to movable property, if the wrong was done within the local limits of the jurisdiction of one Court and the defendant resides, or carries on business, or personally works for gain, within the local limits of the jurisdiction of another Court, the suit may be instituted at the option of the plaintiff in either of the said Courts.
  • This provision is based on the principle of forum convenience, which means that a court should be chosen for the trial of a suit which is most convenient for all parties concerned. In this case, the plaintiff may choose to file the suit in the court where the wrong was done, or in the court where the defendant resides.

The plaintiff may consider the following factors when deciding which court to file the suit in:

  • The availability of evidence: If the evidence is located in the court where the wrong was done, it may be more convenient to file the suit there.
  • The convenience of the parties: If the plaintiff and defendant live closer to one court than the other, it may be more convenient to file the suit in that court.
  • The experience of the courts: If one court has more experience with this type of case, it may be more likely to make a fair decision.

Which of the following statement is not correct with respect to the principle of res-judicata?

  1. ex-parte decree will operate as res-judicata.
  2. writ petition dismissed on merits operates as res-judicata.
  3. writ petition dismissed in limine operates as res-judicata.
  4. both (a) & (c).

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 3 : writ petition dismissed in limine operates as res-judicata.

CPC Question 9 Detailed Solution

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The Correct answer is Writ petition dismissed in limine operates as res-judicata.

Key Points

  • Doctrine of Res Judicata given under section 11 of the CPC.
  • The doctrine of res judicata is a fundamental principle in Indian civil procedure law, enshrined in Section 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (CPC). It aims to prevent repetitive litigation and uphold the finality of judicial decisions.
  • The principle essentially states that once a court has reached a final and conclusive judgment on a matter, the same matter cannot be re-litigated between the same parties or their privies, involving the same subject matter and under the same title.
  • Doctrine of Res judicata base on "Res judicata pro veritate accipitur", "Interest reipublicase ut sit finis litium" & "Nemo debet bis vixari pro una et endem causa" latin maxim.

Essential Elements of Res Judicata

  • Identity of parties: The parties to the subsequent suit must be the same parties or their privies involved in the previous suit.
  • Identity of subject matter: The subject matter of the subsequent suit must be the same as or closely related to the subject matter of the previous suit.
  • Identity of cause of action: The cause of action, the legal basis for the claim, must be the same in both suits.
  • Finality of judgment: The judgment in the previous suit must be final and conclusive, not subject to further appeal or revision.

Which of the following sections of the code of civil procedure provides a mandate for courts to try all civil courts unless barred? 

  1. Section 5
  2. Section 7 
  3. Section 13 
  4. Section 9 

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 4 : Section 9 

CPC Question 10 Detailed Solution

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The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points Section 9 of CPC says Courts to try all civil suits unless barred.
The Courts shall (subject to the provisions herein contained) have jurisdiction to try all suits of a civil nature excepting suits of which their cognizance is either expressly or impliedly barred.

[Explanation I].--A suit in which the right to property or to an office is contested is a suit of a civil nature, notwithstanding that such right may depend entirely on the decision of questions as to religious rites or ceremonies.

[Explanation II].--For the purposes of this section, it is immaterial whether or not any fees are attached to the office referred to in Explanation I or whether or not such office is attached to a particular place.

The following are suits of a civil nature: 

  • Suits relating to right to property.
  • Suits relating to right to worship/ to share in offerings 
  • Suits relating to taking out of religious procession.
  • Suits for specific performance of contracts or for damages for civil wrongs/ for breach of contract 
  • Suits for specific relief.
  • Suits of restitution of conjugal rights/ for dissolution of marriage.
  • Suits for rights for franchise.

The following are not suits of a civil nature:- 

  • Suits involving principally caste question (viz., temporary exclusion of some members of a caste from social intercourse with other families on account of infringement of caste rules.)
  • Suits involving purely religious rites/ceremonies 
  • Suits for recovery of voluntary payments or offerings.
  • Suits for upholding mere dignity or honour (viz. z claim to be declared the guru of a temple, a suit by an honorary lecturer to compel delivery of lectures by him).

Additional Information

  • Section 5: Application of the Code to Revenue Courts.
  • Section 7: Provincial Small Cause Courts.
  • Section 13: When foreign judgment not conclusive.

Under Section 34 of Civil Procedure Code, Court can award interest from the date of decree to the date of payment or such earlier date as the Court thinks fit. Rate of such interest shall not exceed ..............per annum.

  1. Nine percent 
  2. Six percent 
  3. Ten percent 
  4. Twelve percent 

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 2 : Six percent 

CPC Question 11 Detailed Solution

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The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

  • Section 34 of the C.P.C makes provision for payment of interest in a money decree. In respect of 'interest prior to the institution of the suit', the court will normally allow the rate of interest as was stipulated between the parties or as according to mercantile usage (if any) or a statutory right of interest (e.g. under the Negotiable Instruments Act). 
  • In respect of pendent lite interest i.e. 'interest from the date of the suit till the date of the decree', the court has discretion. Courts normally award interest at the rate agreed to between the parties, unless it is inequitable to do so. The court may disallow such interest altogether. Or, it may allow it even it there is a contrary contract between the parties. 
  • In respect of futurel further interest i.e. 'interest from the date of the decree till realization or date of payment' , the court has a discretion and it may award at such rate as it deems reasonable, not exceeding 6 percent per annum, except in case of commercial transactions in which the rate may exceed 6%. However, such rate cannot exceed the contractual rate of interest or the rate at which money is lent by nationalized banks in relation to commercial transactions. 
  • It is open to the court to allow compound interest from the date of the institution of the suit. 

A suit may be dismissed where

  1. summons are not served on the defendant in consequence of the failure of the plaintiff to take proper steps like filing of court fee, postal charges or requisite number of copies of plaint.
  2. neither party appears when the suit is called on for hearing.
  3. plaintiff, after summons to defendant has returned unserved, fails to apply for fresh summons for seven days.
  4. All these

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 4 : All these

CPC Question 12 Detailed Solution

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The correct answer is option 4 

 Key PointsOrder 9,  APPEARANCE OF PARTIES AND CONSEQUENCE OF NON-APPEARANCE

Rule 2 Dismissal of suit where summons not served in consequence of plaintiffs failure to pay cost.

Rule 3 Where neither party appears suit to be dismissed.

Rule 5  Dismissal of suit where plaintiff, after summons returned unserved, fails for seven days to apply for fresh summons.

Consider the following statements.

Admissions for forming the basis of judgment may be secured from the opposite party to a civil suit by way of notice

(i) of admission of the case

(ii) to admit documents

(iii) to admit facts

Which of the statements given above are correct?

  1. None of these
  2. All these
  3. Only (i) and (ii)
  4. Only (ii) and (iii)

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 2 : All these

CPC Question 13 Detailed Solution

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The correct option is option 2

 Key Points The three statements are covered by the Provisions contained in Order 12, Rules 1, 2, 4 and 6 CPC

 ORDER XII – ADMISSION 

Rule 1: Notice of admission of case
Rule 2: Notice to admit documents
Rule 4: Notice to admit facts

Rule 6: Judgment on admissions

A money decree may be executed by

  1. attachment and sale of any property of the judgment debtor.
  2. arrest and detention in prison of the judgment debtor for definite period.
  3. Both (1) and (2)
  4. Neither (1) nor (2)

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 3 : Both (1) and (2)

CPC Question 14 Detailed Solution

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The correct answer is option 3

​ Key Points

  •  Section 51. Powers of Court to enforce execution. (b) permits execution of money decree by attachment and sale of any property of the judgment debtor.
  • (c) permits execution even by arrest and detention in prison of the judgment debtor but not for period exceeding the one specified in Section 58 

 

Section 58. Detention and release(1) Every person detained in the civil prison in execution of a decree shall be so detained,
(a) where the decree is for the payment of a sum of money exceeding [five thousand rupees], for a period not exceeding three months, and
(b) where the decree is for the payment of a sum of money exceeding two thousand rupees, but not exceeding five thousand rupees, for a period not exceeding six weeks.
(1A) For the removal of doubts, it is hereby declared that no order for detention of the judgment debtor in civil prison in execution of a decree for the payment of money shall be made, where the total amount of the decree does not exceed 5 [two thousand rupees.]
(2) A judgment-debtor released from detention under this section shall not merely by reason of his release be discharged from his debt, but he shall not be liable to be re-arrested under the decree in execution of which he was detained in the civil prison.

 

A relief of injunction may be refused on the ground of: 

  1. Laches or acquiescence
  2. The applicant has not come with clean hands
  3. Where monetary compensation is adequate relief
  4. All of the above

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 4 : All of the above

CPC Question 15 Detailed Solution

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The correct answer is Option 4

Key Points

  • injunction refuses in following situation:
  1.  If it would impede or delay the progress or completion of any infrastructure project or interfere with the continued provision of relevant facility related thereto or services being the subject matter of such project.
  2.  when the plaintiff has no personal interest in the matter.
  •  Order 39 talks about Temporary Injunction And Interlocutory Orders.

In News 

  • The Karnataka High Court recently held that relief of temporary injunction under Order 39 Rules 1 and 2 of the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) is a discretionary remedy which requires a careful balance between the need for interim relief and the ongoing legal proceeding
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