Information Technology Law MCQ Quiz in தமிழ் - Objective Question with Answer for Information Technology Law - இலவச PDF ஐப் பதிவிறக்கவும்

Key Points

To match List I with List II and explain each pointer comprehensively:
1. Application of the Act to electronic cheque and truncated cheque
Correct Match: A - II (Sec. 81A)
Explanation: Section 81A pertains to the application of certain provisions of the Act to electronic cheques and truncated cheques. These are modern forms of cheques that are processed electronically, which necessitates specific legal frameworks to ensure their validity and security. This section ensures that electronic and truncated cheques are treated with the same legal standing as traditional paper cheques, adapting the law to technological advancements in banking and financial transactions.
2. Electronic Signature
Correct Match: B - I (Sec. 3A)
Explanation: Section 3A deals with electronic signatures, which are a form of electronic authentication used to sign documents digitally. This section outlines the legal recognition of electronic signatures, ensuring that they hold the same validity and legal effect as handwritten signatures. By doing so, it facilitates the execution of contracts and documents in the digital domain, promoting ease of business and personal transactions in the electronic age.
3. Secure electronic record
Correct Match: C - III (Sec. 15)
Explanation: The provided options do not directly correlate with a known section related to "Secure electronic record" in standard legislation texts such as the Information Technology Act, 2000 (India), Section 15 in general legislative terms could pertain to provisions ensuring the integrity, confidentiality, and non-repudiation of electronic records. Secure electronic records are crucial for maintaining the trustworthiness of electronic transactions and communications. (It's important to note that specific section numbers like Sec. 15 might not directly match with "Secure electronic record" in actual legislation; this explanation is generalized.)
4. Validity of contracts formed through electronic means
Correct Match: D - IV (Sec. 10A)
Section 10A specifically addresses the validity of contracts formed through electronic means. It establishes that contracts formed electronically cannot be deemed invalid solely because they were conducted electronically. This provision is fundamental in recognizing electronic agreements as legally binding, thus facilitating e-commerce and other online contractual transactions. It ensures legal certainty and trust in electronic dealings, contributing to the digital economy's growth.
Conclusion: The correct matches, based on the provided options and typical legislative structures (noting some liberties with the secure electronic record match), demonstrate the legal framework's adaptation to digital and electronic advancements. These provisions collectively support the integrity, validity, and legal recognition of electronic transactions, signatures, and records, which are essential for the modern digital economy.

Key Points

The matching of List I (Definitions of) with List II (Provisions under Information Technology Act, 2000) as per the correct option (option 3) is explained comprehensively below:
List I (Definitions of)  List II (Provisions under Information Technology Act, 2000)  Explanation 

(A) Computer  (IV) Section 2 (i) - Section 2(i) of the Information Technology Act, 2000 defines a "Computer" as any electronic, magnetic, optical or other high-speed data processing device or system which performs logical, arithmetic, and memory functions by manipulations of electronic, magnetic or optical impulses, and includes all input, output, processing, storage, computer software, or communication facilities which are connected or related to the computer in a computer system or computer network. 
(B) Computer Network (III) Section 2 (j)  - Section 2(j) defines a "Computer Network" as the interconnection of one or more computers or computer systems or communication device through- (i) the use of satellite, microwave, terrestrial line, wire, wireless or other communication media; and (ii) terminals or a complex consisting of two or more interconnected computers or communication device whether or not the interconnection is continuously maintained. 
(C) Certifying Authority (I) Section 2 (g) - Section 2(g) explains a "Certifying Authority" as a person who has been granted a license to issue a Digital Signature Certificate under Section 24. This provision outlines the role and requirements for entities that wish to act as certifying authorities for digital signatures, providing a framework for the authentication of electronic documents. 
(D) Computer Resource (II) Section 2 (k) - Section 2(k) defines "Computer Resource" as a computer, computer system, computer network, data, computer database or software. This broad definition encompasses all elements that could be involved in the computing environment, including both hardware and software components, as well as networks and databases. 
This matching and explanations clarify how each term is defined within the Information Technology Act, 2000, and the specific section that provides these definitions. This act is foundational for understanding and governing the use, security, and legal implications of information technology and digital communications in India.

Key Points

Statement A: Describes the use of various communication media to interconnect computers or communication devices. This is a fundamental aspect of what constitutes a computer network, as it emphasizes the variety of media through which connectivity and communication can be achieved. Hence, Statement A is correct.
Statement B: Focuses on devices or collections of devices, including input and output support devices. While these are components of a computer network, this description alone does not encompass the broader concept of a computer network, which is about the interconnection of these components rather than the components themselves. Hence, Statement B is incorrect in the context of defining a computer network.
Statement C: Mentions electronic, magnetic, optical, and other high-speed data processing devices. Similar to Statement B, this highlights the types of devices that might be part of a network but does not directly address the interconnectivity aspect that defines a computer network. Hence, Statement C is incorrect in defining a computer network.
Statement D: Refers to all input, output, processing, storage, computer software, or communication facilities. Although these are critical elements of computing environments, the statement does not specifically address the concept of interconnection between computers or devices, which is essential to the definition of a computer network. Thus, Statement D is incorrect.
Statement E: Points to a terminal or a complex consisting of two or more interconnected computers or communication devices. This directly addresses the concept of interconnectivity, which is central to the definition of a computer network. It highlights the essence of what a computer network is - a system of interconnected computers and devices. Hence, Statement E is correct.

Given the analysis above, the correct answer is option 4, which includes Statements A and E. These two statements accurately capture the essence of what constitutes a computer network: the interconnection of computers or communication devices through various communication media.
- Conclusion: The correct definition of a computer network involves the interconnection of computers or communication devices, which can be achieved through various communication media (Statement A) and involves two or more interconnected computers or communication devices (Statement E). Hence, option 4 (A and E only) is the correct answer.

Key Points

Statement A: National Nodal Agency may declare any computer resource as the protected system
This statement is incorrect. Under the Information Technology Act, 2000, it is the Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-In), not a National Nodal Agency, that plays a significant role in dealing with cybersecurity threats, but the Act itself does not designate the role of declaring computer resources as protected systems to CERT-In or a National Nodal Agency. It is the Central Government that has the authority to declare a computer resource as a protected system.
Statement B: Central Government prescribes the information security practices and procedures for protected system
This statement is correct. According to the Information Technology Act, 2000, the Central Government is responsible for prescribing the information security practices, procedures, standards, and guidelines for the protection of critical information infrastructure, including protected systems.
Statement C: Protected system relates to the protection of the facilities of critical information infrastructure
This statement is correct. A protected system, as defined under the Information Technology Act, 2000, is a part of the critical information infrastructure whose incapacitation or destruction would have a debilitating impact on national security, economy, public health, or safety. Therefore, the protection of these systems is crucial for safeguarding critical information infrastructure.
Statement D: Indian Computer Emergency Response Team has the overall responsibility for taking all measures for protection of protected system.
This statement is incorrect. While the Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-In) plays a critical role in enhancing the security of India's cyber space and dealing with cybersecurity incidents, the overall responsibility for the protection of protected systems as per the Information Technology Act, 2000, lies with the owners of the protected system who are required to adhere to the guidelines and procedures prescribed by the Central Government. CERT-In may assist and guide in improving cybersecurity practices but does not have the overall responsibility for taking all measures for the protection of protected systems.
Conclusion
Hence, the correct option is "B, C only" because statements B and C accurately reflect the provisions related to protected systems under the Information Technology Act, 2000.

• The incorrect response is to facilitate electronic filing of documents with international agencies. This is not explicitly stated as a purpose in the Preamble of the Information Technology Act, 2000. The Act primarily focuses on the Indian legal framework and does not directly address the facilitation of electronic filing with international agencies.
• To provide legal recognition for transactions carried out by means of electronic data interchange: This is correct as the Act aims to give legal validity and recognition to transactions done through electronic communication, thereby legalizing e-commerce and related activities.
• To involve the use of alternatives to paper-based methods of communication and storage of information: This is also correct. One of the Act undefineds main objectives is to promote the use of electronic transactions and reduce the reliance on physical documents, thereby making digital communication and storage the norm.
• To amend the Indian Penal Code, 1860; the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, the Bankers Books Evidence Act, 1891 and the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934: This statement is correct because the Information Technology Act, 2000 includes provisions that amend these acts to accommodate the realities of the digital age, ensuring that electronic documents are recognized legally.

Conclusion:

• The focus on facilitating electronic filing with international agencies, while potentially a benefit or derivative of the broader legal frameworks established by the Information Technology Act, 2000, is not one of its stated purposes in the Preamble.
• The Act is more domestically focused, with its primary aim being to update India's legal framework to account for the emergence of digital and electronic transactions, ensuring they have the same legal standing as traditional paper-based transactions.

The correct answer is 'The government has discretion in opting for e-governance and none has the right to insist on e-governance'

Key Points

• Implementation of e-Governance under the Information Technology Act:
  • The Information Technology Act, 2000, provides a legal framework for the adoption of electronic records and digital signatures in governance, enabling e-Governance practices in India.
  • However, the Act does not mandate that all government functions or services must be conducted electronically. It leaves the implementation of e-Governance to the discretion of the government.
  • This means that while the government can adopt e-Governance to enhance efficiency and transparency, it is not legally bound to do so. Citizens cannot insist or demand that a government service be exclusively delivered through electronic means.
  • The government has the flexibility to determine the scope, applicability, and pace of e-Governance implementation based on infrastructural readiness, budgetary constraints, and other factors.

Additional Information

• Option 1: 'A person has a right to insist on e-Governance'
  • This is incorrect as no individual has the legal right to insist on e-Governance under the Information Technology Act. The Act only facilitates the process but does not mandate it as a citizen’s right.
• Option 3: 'None has the right to insist on e-Governance'
  • This is partially correct, as it aligns with the fact that individuals cannot demand e-Governance services. However, this option alone does not fully address the government's discretionary role in its implementation, which is why it is incomplete.
• Option 1 & 3: 'A person has a right to insist on e-Governance and None has the right to insist on e-Governance'
  • This combination is contradictory, as both statements cannot coexist. Citizens cannot have a right to insist on e-Governance while also having no such right.
• Option 4: 'The government has discretion in opting for e-Governance and none has the right to insist on e-Governance'
  • This is the correct answer as it accurately reflects the provisions of the Information Technology Act, which grants the government the discretion to implement e-Governance while ensuring that no one can legally insist on its adoption.

The correct answer is 'Section 50A of Indian Copyright Act and Section 11A of Patent Act.'

Key Points

• Explanation of the Correct Answer:
  • Section 50A of Indian Copyright Act: This section deals with the protection of copyright and related rights. It does not specifically address cyber or internet crimes but rather focuses on intellectual property rights in the offline and online domains.
  • Section 11A of Patent Act: This section pertains to patent-related matters, such as publication of applications and requests for examination. It is not related to internet, cyber, or computer crimes.
  • Both these sections are excluded from dealing with cybercrimes, making them the correct answer to this question.

Additional Information

• Overview of Other Options:
  • Section 354D of IPC: This section deals with stalking, which includes cyberstalking. It addresses cybercrimes where individuals use electronic means to harass or follow someone online.
  • Section 66F of Information Technology Act: This section pertains to cyber terrorism, which is a serious offense involving the use of computers or the internet to disrupt critical systems or threaten national security.
  • Section 111 of Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita: While this is a new provision under the restructured criminal code, it may address cyber or computer-related offenses depending on its specific text. It is not excluded from the domain of cybercrime.
  • These sections are directly related to cyber or internet crimes, making them incorrect choices for the question.

The correct answer is 'Has the powers of Civil Court which are conferred on the Appellate Tribunal, All proceedings before it deemed to be judicial proceedings U/ss 193 and 228 of IPC, and Deemed to be a Civil Court for the purpose of order XXI of CPC, 1908'

Key Points

• Adjudicating Officers under the Information Technology Act, 2000:
  • Adjudicating officers are authorized to adjudicate matters related to contraventions of provisions under the Information Technology Act, 2000.
  • They are primarily responsible for determining penalties and compensations arising from violations under the Act.
• Powers conferred under the Act:
  • Adjudicating officers are vested with the powers of a Civil Court as conferred on the Appellate Tribunal, which includes summoning and enforcing attendance, examining witnesses, receiving evidence, and requiring the discovery and inspection of documents.
  • All proceedings before adjudicating officers are deemed to be judicial proceedings under Sections 193 and 228 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC). This ensures that any false evidence or disruption during proceedings is treated as a punishable offense.
  • Adjudicating officers are deemed to be Civil Courts for the purpose of enforcing orders under Order XXI of the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC), 1908. This includes actions such as attachment and sale of property for recovery of penalties.

Additional Information

• Incorrect Option Explanation:
  • Option (D): Adjudicating officers are not deemed to be Civil Courts for the purpose of Sections 340 and 341 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973. These sections pertain to procedures for dealing with offenses committed in court and the powers to deal with contempt, which are not explicitly granted to adjudicating officers under the IT Act.
  • While adjudicating officers have powers akin to those of Civil Courts for certain purposes, their jurisdiction does not extend to criminal matters as outlined in Sections 340 and 341 of CrPC.

The correct answer is 2) A, B, C, D only.

Key Points

The Information Technology Act, 2000 provides definitions for several key terms. Here's a breakdown:

1. A. Computer Network:

   • Defined.
     Under Section 2(j) of the IT Act, a computer network is described as the interconnection of one or more computers or communication devices for sharing data, software, or resources.

2. B. Information:

   • Defined.
     Under Section 2(v), information is broadly defined to include data, text, images, sound, voice, codes, and databases.

3. C. Data:

   • Defined.
     Under Section 2(o), data is defined as information, knowledge, or facts in any form, including text, numbers, graphics, and sound stored electronically.

4. D. Secure System:

   • Defined.
     Under Section 2(ze), a secure system refers to a computer, device, or network certified by the government for maintaining security protocols.

5. E. Online:

   • Not Defined.
     The IT Act does not specifically define the term "online."

Additional Information

• The Information Technology Act, 2000
  • The Act provides the legal framework for electronic governance by giving recognition to electronic records and digital signatures.
  • It also defines various cybercrimes and prescribes penalties for them.

The correct answer is 4.

Key PointsFunctions of Controller of Certifying Authorities under the Information Technology Act, 2000:

• A. Exercising supervision over the activities of the Certifying Authorities
  • The Controller of Certifying Authorities is responsible for overseeing the operations and activities of the certifying authorities to ensure compliance with the provisions of the Information Technology Act, 2000. Hence statement A is correct.
• B. Certifying public keys of the Certifying Authorities
  • The Controller is tasked with certifying the public keys used by certifying authorities to ensure their authenticity and reliability. Hence statement B is correct.
• C. Laying down standards to be maintained by Certifying Authorities
  • The Controller sets the standards and practices that certifying authorities must follow to maintain their certification status. Hence statement C is correct.
• D. Summon and enforcing attendance of any subscriber and examining him on oath
  • This function is not typically associated with the Controller of Certifying Authorities. It is more related to judicial or quasi-judicial functions. Hence statement D is incorrect.
• E. Facilitation of the establishment of any electronic system by a certifying authority
  • The Controller may facilitate the setup and maintenance of electronic systems by certifying authorities to ensure seamless and secure digital transactions. Hence statement E is correct.

Additional Information

• Certifying Authorities
  • Certifying Authorities (CAs) are entities that issue digital certificates to verify the identity of individuals and organizations engaging in online transactions.
  • The Controller of Certifying Authorities ensures that CAs adhere to the standards and guidelines prescribed under the Information Technology Act, 2000.
• Digital Certificates
  • Digital certificates are electronic documents used to prove the ownership of a public key. They are essential for secure communication and transactions over the internet.
  • The Controller certifies the public keys of CAs to ensure the integrity and trustworthiness of digital certificates issued.