If y = tan (cot−1 x), then  \(\frac{{{\rm{dy}}}}{{{\rm{dx}}}}\) at x = 1 is equal to

  1. 1
  2. -1
  3. π/4
  4. 0

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 2 : -1
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Detailed Solution

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Concept:

\({\cot ^{ - 1}}{\rm{x}} = {\rm{\;}}{\tan ^{ - 1}}\left( {\frac{1}{{\rm{x}}}} \right)\)

tan (tan-1 x) = x

Calculation:

Given:

y = tan (cot−1 x)                                      

 \( \Rightarrow {\rm{y}} = \tan \left[ {{{\tan }^{ - 1}}\left( {\frac{1}{{\rm{x}}}} \right)} \right]\)               

⇒ y = 1/x                                (∵tan (tan-1 x) = x)

Differentiating with respect to x, we get

\(\frac{{{\rm{dy}}}}{{{\rm{dx}}}} = {\rm{\;}} - \frac{1}{{{{\rm{x}}^2}}}\)

At x = 1

\(\frac{{{\rm{dy}}}}{{{\rm{dx}}}} = \; - \frac{1}{1} = \; - 1\)

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