If \(z\ne0\) is a complex number, then what is $amp(z)+amp(\bar{z})$ equal to?

Concept:

1. The amplitude (or argument) of a complex number \( z = r(\cos\theta + i\sin\theta) \) is given by \( \text{amp}(z) = \theta \).

2. The conjugate of \( z \), denoted as \( \overline{z} \), has an amplitude \( \text{amp}(\overline{z}) = -\theta \), because conjugating a complex number reflects it across the real axis in the Argand plane.

Formula Used:

\( \text{amp}(z) + \text{amp}(\overline{z}) = \theta + (-\theta) = 0 \).

Calculation:

\( z = r(\cos\theta + i\sin\theta) \)

\( \overline{z} = r(\cos\theta - i\sin\theta) \)

\( \text{amp}(z) + \text{amp}(\overline{z}) = \theta + (-\theta) = 0 \)

Conclusion:

\( \therefore \text{amp}(z) + \text{amp}(\overline{z}) = 0 \).

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1.