Fundamental Nursing MCQ Quiz - Objective Question with Answer for Fundamental Nursing - Download Free PDF
Last updated on Jun 4, 2025
Latest Fundamental Nursing MCQ Objective Questions
Fundamental Nursing Question 1:
In which phase of wound healing, the wound appears pink and vascular?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 4 : Granulation phase
Fundamental Nursing Question 1 Detailed Solution
Correct Answer: Granulation phase
Rationale:
- The granulation phase is one of the key stages of wound healing, occurring after the initial inflammatory phase. During this phase, the wound begins to appear pink and vascular due to the formation of new blood vessels (angiogenesis) and the deposition of granulation tissue.
- Granulation tissue is rich in fibroblasts, collagen, and newly formed capillaries, which give the wound its pink and vascular appearance. This tissue is essential for filling in the wound and preparing it for the next stages of healing.
- Fibroblasts play a crucial role in producing extracellular matrix and collagen, which provide structural support for the wound.
- The presence of new capillaries ensures that the wound receives adequate oxygen and nutrients, which are vital for cellular activity and tissue repair.
- The granulation phase typically begins around 3-5 days after the injury and can last for several weeks, depending on the size and severity of the wound.
Additional Information:
- During this phase, the wound is highly vascularized and susceptible to infection, so proper wound care is essential to prevent complications.
- This phase marks the transition from inflammation to tissue repair, emphasizing the importance of cellular proliferation and angiogenesis.
Explanation of Other Options:
Scar contraction phase
- Rationale: The scar contraction phase occurs later in wound healing and is characterized by the contraction of the wound edges as fibroblasts and myofibroblasts pull the edges together. This phase does not involve the pink and vascular appearance seen in the granulation phase.
Initial phase
- Rationale: The initial phase, also known as the inflammatory phase, occurs immediately after the injury. This phase is marked by redness, swelling, and the recruitment of immune cells to prevent infection. While the wound may appear red, it is not yet vascularized or filled with granulation tissue.
Maturation phase
- Rationale: The maturation phase is the final stage of wound healing, during which collagen is remodeled and the wound strengthens. By this phase, the wound has already transitioned past the granulation stage and does not exhibit the pink and vascular appearance typical of the granulation phase.
Conclusion:
- The granulation phase is the correct answer because it is during this stage that the wound appears pink and vascular due to the formation of granulation tissue and new capillaries. This is a crucial step in wound healing, as it sets the foundation for tissue repair and restoration.
Fundamental Nursing Question 2:
Which indicator best reflects the person-centeredness of healthcare delivery?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 2 : Patient involvement in decision-making
Fundamental Nursing Question 2 Detailed Solution
Correct Answer: Patient involvement in decision-making
Rationale:
- Person-centeredness in healthcare refers to the approach of delivering care that is respectful of, and responsive to, individual patient preferences, needs, and values. It emphasizes the importance of involving patients in the decision-making process about their treatment and care plans.
- Patient involvement in decision-making is a key indicator of person-centeredness because it ensures that healthcare delivery aligns with the patient’s unique circumstances, goals, and values. This participation improves patient satisfaction, adherence to treatment, and overall health outcomes.
- By actively engaging patients in their care, healthcare providers foster trust, respect, and better communication. This collaborative approach not only empowers patients but also leads to more tailored and effective healthcare interventions.
Explanation of Other Options:
Number of healthcare providers
- Rationale: While having an adequate number of healthcare providers is essential for access to care, it does not directly reflect the person-centeredness of healthcare delivery. Person-centered care is more about the quality of interactions and the respect for patient preferences than the quantity of staff available.
Facility operating hours
- Rationale: Flexible operating hours can improve accessibility, but they do not necessarily indicate person-centeredness. Accessibility is a structural factor, whereas person-centeredness pertains to the nature of care delivery and the inclusion of the patient’s voice in care decisions.
Technology availability
- Rationale: Advanced technology can enhance diagnostic and treatment capabilities but does not inherently reflect person-centeredness. Even with cutting-edge technology, care may lack a personal touch or fail to consider patient preferences.
Conclusion:
- Patient involvement in decision-making is the best indicator of person-centeredness in healthcare delivery. It underscores the importance of respecting and integrating patients’ preferences, values, and needs into their care plans. While other factors, such as accessibility and technology, are important in healthcare, they do not directly measure the personalized and collaborative nature of care that defines person-centeredness.
Fundamental Nursing Question 3:
What legal preparation done for a patient who is undergoing surgery related to fracture?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 4 : Signed informed consent
Fundamental Nursing Question 3 Detailed Solution
Correct Answer: Signed informed consent
Rationale:
- Signed informed consent is a legal and ethical requirement before any surgical procedure, including surgery for a fracture. It ensures that the patient (or their legal guardian, if applicable) is fully informed about the nature of the procedure, its risks, benefits, alternatives, and potential complications.
- Informed consent is a critical step in respecting patient autonomy and protecting both the patient and the healthcare provider from legal issues. It demonstrates that the patient has voluntarily agreed to the procedure after understanding all relevant information.
- For a patient undergoing surgery, particularly one related to a fracture, the healthcare team must explain details such as the type of surgery, anesthesia to be used, recovery process, potential risks like infection or complications, and what to expect post-surgery.
Additional Information:
- In emergency situations where the patient is unconscious or unable to provide consent, and no legal guardian is available, the procedure can proceed under the principle of implied consent, but this is only applicable under life-threatening circumstances.
- The informed consent process also involves documentation, which includes the patient’s signature and the date of consent, as well as the signatures of the healthcare provider and a witness.
- Obtaining informed consent is not only a legal obligation but also a core component of patient-centered care, fostering trust and transparency between the patient and the healthcare team.
Explanation of Other Options:
Hospital fee paid
- Rationale: While paying hospital fees is an administrative requirement, it is not directly related to the legal preparation for surgery. Surgery can still proceed in many cases regardless of the fee payment status, particularly in emergencies or under specific healthcare policies.
Blood is ready for emergency
- Rationale: Ensuring that blood is available for emergencies is a part of medical preparation, not legal preparation. It is important for patient safety, especially in surgeries with a risk of significant blood loss, but it does not fulfill any legal requirement.
Relative present during surgery
- Rationale: The presence of a relative during surgery is not a legal requirement. While having a family member or relative available is often encouraged to provide support and make decisions on behalf of the patient if needed, it is not mandatory from a legal standpoint.
Conclusion:
- Signed informed consent is the essential legal preparation required for surgery. It ensures that the patient is fully informed and agrees to the procedure, fulfilling both ethical and legal standards. Other options, while important in their respective contexts, do not meet the criteria for legal preparation.
Fundamental Nursing Question 4:
How many cycles of CPR to be given followed by one shock, if the victim has a shockable rhythm, while providing advanced life support in cardiac arrest?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 2 : 5
Fundamental Nursing Question 4 Detailed Solution
Correct Answer: 5 cycles of CPR
Rationale:
- The advanced life support (ALS) protocol for cardiac arrest is based on guidelines provided by organizations such as the American Heart Association (AHA). When a victim has a shockable rhythm (e.g., ventricular fibrillation or pulseless ventricular tachycardia), it is essential to provide high-quality CPR and deliver defibrillation as needed to restore normal heart rhythm.
- For every cycle of CPR, the healthcare provider performs 30 chest compressions followed by 2 rescue breaths (if applicable). A cycle lasts approximately 2 minutes.
- After confirming a shockable rhythm, advanced life support involves administering one shock using a defibrillator, followed immediately by 5 cycles of CPR (approximately 2 minutes of CPR for each cycle). This process is repeated after reassessment of the rhythm.
- The rationale behind performing 5 cycles of CPR is to ensure adequate oxygenation and blood circulation during cardiac arrest while preparing for the next rhythm assessment and shock delivery. Studies have shown that high-quality CPR improves survival rates.
Explanation of Other Options:
Option 1: 4 cycles of CPR
- Rationale: Performing 4 cycles of CPR before reassessing and delivering a shock is not in line with standard ALS guidelines. ALS protocols specifically recommend 5 cycles of CPR to maximize the chances of successful defibrillation and survival.
Option 3: 2 cycles of CPR
- Rationale: While 2 cycles of CPR may seem efficient, it is insufficient to maintain adequate blood flow and oxygenation during cardiac arrest. The recommended guideline is to perform 5 cycles of CPR to optimize patient outcomes.
Option 4: 3 cycles of CPR
- Rationale: Performing 3 cycles of CPR before delivering a shock does not align with the established ALS protocols. It is important to adhere to the recommended 5 cycles of CPR to ensure adequate resuscitation efforts.
Option 5: No option provided
- Rationale: This option is not applicable as no valid information is provided. It does not correspond to any ALS recommendation.
Conclusion:
- In advanced life support for cardiac arrest with a shockable rhythm, 5 cycles of CPR followed by one shock is the recommended approach. This method ensures optimal oxygenation and circulation, increasing the chances of restoring normal heart function and improving survival rates.
Fundamental Nursing Question 5:
When a patient arrives to the hospital for routine admission, the nurse must first do the following---------------.
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 2 : Complete the admission procedure
Fundamental Nursing Question 5 Detailed Solution
Correct Answer: Complete the admission procedure
Rationale:
- When a patient arrives at the hospital for routine admission, the first and foremost responsibility of the nurse is to complete the admission procedure. This ensures that all necessary administrative and initial clinical steps are taken for the patient's care to commence smoothly.
- The admission procedure typically involves verifying the patient's identity, collecting medical history, noting any specific needs or conditions, and ensuring that all required forms are completed accurately. These steps are critical to establish a baseline for the patient's care and ensure proper communication among the healthcare team.
- This process also helps in organizing the patient’s stay, including assigning the patient to the correct department or room and ensuring all relevant staff is informed about the admission.
Explanation of Other Options:
Obtain blood for laboratory
- Rationale: While obtaining blood samples for laboratory tests is an important step during a hospital stay, it is not the first step upon a patient’s arrival for routine admission. Blood collection typically happens after the admission procedure is completed and the necessary orders are written by the physician.
Inform doctor about the patient's arrival
- Rationale: Informing the doctor about the patient’s arrival may be required in certain cases, especially for critical or specialized admissions. However, in routine admissions, the initial step is for the nurse to complete the admission procedure. The physician is typically notified after the administrative steps are completed.
Tell the routine and policies of the hospital
- Rationale: Educating the patient about the hospital's routine and policies is an essential part of the admission process, but it is not the first step. This usually follows after the administrative and clinical details have been addressed during the admission procedure.
Conclusion:
- The first responsibility of the nurse when a patient arrives for routine admission is to complete the admission procedure. This step ensures that all necessary information is gathered, organized, and documented to provide safe and effective care. Other actions, such as obtaining blood samples, notifying the physician, or explaining hospital policies, follow as part of the ongoing admission process but are not the first priority.
Top Fundamental Nursing MCQ Objective Questions
What is 'Halitosis' commonly known as?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 3 : Bad breath
Fundamental Nursing Question 6 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDF'Halitosis' commonly known as Bad breath.
- Halitosis (bad breath) is mostly caused by sulphur-producing bacteria that normally live on the surface of the tongue and in the throat.
- It is used to describe any disagreeable bad or unpleasant odor emanating from the mouth air and breath.
- Halitosis is a latin word which derived from halitus (breathed air) and the osis (pathologic alteration).
- Bad breath is typically caused by bacteria present on the teeth and debris on the tongue.
- Most cases of halitosis are associated with poor oral hygiene, gum diseases such as gingivitis and periodontitis, and dry mouth.
- Dry mouth is a condition in which the salivary glands cannot make enough saliva to keep your mouth moist.
- Halitosis is not infectious.
- High Blood Pressure may be referred to as Hypertension and Low Blood Pressure may be referred to as Hypotension.
- A headache is called cephalgia in medical terminology.
- Influenza is commonly referred to as Flu.
Electrocardiograph (ECG) is used to measure ________.
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 2 : Heart Beat
Fundamental Nursing Question 7 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFECG is the process of recording the electrical activity of the heart over a period of time using electrodes placed on the skin.
|
Codes |
Description |
|
EEG(Electroencephalography) |
It is an electrophysiological monitoring method that detects and records the electrical activity of the brain. |
|
ECG(Electrocardiography) |
It detects the electrical activity and rhythm of the heart over a period of time. It yields electrocardiogram. |
|
EOG(Electrooculography) |
It is a method to measure the cornea-retinal standing potential existing between the front and the back of the human eye. |
|
EMG(Electromyography) |
It is an electrodiagnostic medicine method for recording and evaluating the electrical activity produced by skeletal muscles. |
How many moments of hand hygiene have been laid down by WHO?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 4 : 5
Fundamental Nursing Question 8 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFExplanation:
5 Moments for Hand Hygiene according to WHO.
|
1 BEFORE TOUCHING A PATIENT |
WHEN? Clean your hands before touching a patient when approaching him/her. WHY? To protect the patient against harmful germs carried on your hands. |
|
2 BEFORE CLEAN / ASEPTIC PROCEDURE |
WHEN? Clean your hands immediately before performing a clean/aseptic procedure. WHY? To protect the patient against harmful germs, including the patient's own, from entering his/her body |
|
3 AFTER BODY FLUID EXPOSURE RISK |
WHEN? Clean your hands immediately after an exposure risk to body fluids (and after glove removal). WHY? To protect yourself and the healthcare environment from harmful patient germs. |
|
4 AFTER TOUCHING A PATIENT |
WHEN? Clean your hands after touching a patient and her/his immediate surroundings, when leaving the patient’s side. WHY? To protect yourself and the healthcare environment from harmful patient germs. |
|
5 AFTER TOUCHING THE PATIENT SURROUNDINGS |
WHEN? Clean your hands after touching any object or furniture in the patient’s immediate surroundings, when leaving – even if the patient has not been touched. WHY? To protect yourself and the healthcare environment from harmful patient germs. |
Confusion Points
- There is a difference between “Moments of Hand Hygiene” and Steps of Hand Hygiene.
- The 5 Moments for Hand Hygiene defines the key Incidences or situations when health care workers must demonstrate hand hygiene.
- The key to hand washing with 7 Steps of Hand Washing is to ensure that you thoroughly clean all surfaces and areas of your hands, fingers, and wrists.
Suitable position for rectal examination is:
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 4 : Sims position
Fundamental Nursing Question 9 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFConcept:
- Rectal examination is a diagnostic method used to inspect :-
- Disorder of lower gastrointestinal GI tract
- Prostatic disorders like benign prostatic hyperplasia
- Active unexplained gastrointestinal bleed
- Examining women for vaginal wall prolapse.
- Sometimes prior to a colonoscopy or proctoscopy
- In sims position the person will be placed in side lying position with one leg flexed because of which the anus is clearly visualized and can facilitate the anal related procedures
- Sims' position, named after the gynaecologist -> J. Marion Sims,
Additional Information
- Lithotomy position is a position where both the legs are flexed at knees and the vagina is clearly visualized for labor and other gynaecological examinations this position is used
- Dorsal recumbent or supine position is the most common position used to observe the face and chest
- Prone position is when the face is placed downwards, in this position the back is clearly visible
The last preoperative assessment of a client going for elective splenectomy will be
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 4 : Vital signs
Fundamental Nursing Question 10 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFCorrect Answer: Vital signs
Rationale:
- The last preoperative assessment is crucial to ensure the patient’s stability and readiness for anesthesia and surgery. Checking vital signs is essential as it provides immediate data on the patient’s physiological status.
- Vital signs include measurements of heart rate, blood pressure, respiratory rate, and temperature, which are critical indicators of a patient’s current health state.
- This final check confirms the patient is in a stable condition to proceed with the operation, ensuring that any immediate issues can be addressed promptly.
Explanation of Other Options:
Name band
- Rationale: A name band is used for patient identification, ensuring that the correct individual receives the correct procedure. While this is vital for preventing medical errors, it is generally verified earlier in the preparation process.
Signed consent
- Rationale: Obtaining signed consent is essential for legal and ethical reasons, ensuring that the patient understands the procedure and agrees to undergo it. This step is completed well before the final stages of preoperative assessment.
Empty bladder
- Rationale: Having an empty bladder is important to reduce discomfort during and after surgery and to prevent potential complications. However, this is usually instructed and checked before moving the patient to the operating room area.
Conclusion:
- Among the given options, checking vital signs is the final assessment prior to an elective splenectomy. This ensures the patient’s physiological parameters are within safe limits for anesthesia and surgery, thus confirming readiness and overall safety just before the procedure begins.
The activity not recorded by pulse oximeter?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 3 : ECG changes
Fundamental Nursing Question 11 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFExplanation:
Oximeter
- Pulse oximetry is a non-invasive test that measures the oxygen saturation level of your blood.
- It can rapidly detect even small changes in Oxygen levels, Pulse, Oxygen saturation level (SpO2%).
- The pulse oximeter is a small, clip-like device that attaches to a body part, most commonly to a finger.
- Medical professionals often use it in emergency rooms or hospitals.
Which of the following is the most important initial care when chemical burn is suspected?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 4 : Excessive flushing with water for 20-30 minutes
Fundamental Nursing Question 12 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFConcept:
- Chemical burn -> Caused due to exposure to a corrosive chemical.
- Concentrated acids like sulphuric acid and hydrochloric acid can cause chemical burns.
- Immediate medical care must be provided to reduce the impact of the burn.
Explanation:
- Initial care for chemical burn -> Excessive flushing with water for 20-30 minutes.
- Remove the remnants of the chemical from the surface of the body.
- Other steps of chemical burn management -> Removal of dressing -> Done later on.
- Based on the type of burn -> Treatment is provided to the patient.
Additional Information
- Immediately cover the burn area -> Not the first step.
- Remove all the dressings -> Not the initial step.
- Provide the calm environment -> It is done later to help the patient relax.
How long should a nurse wait after taking cold milk for recording oral temperature?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 3 : 20 to 30 mts
Fundamental Nursing Question 13 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFConcept:
- Nurse should wait for 20 to 30 minutes before you take a temperature by mouth to normalize the body temperature and to prevent from the wrong result
- When the patient drinks some cold drinks there are changes in temperature of buccal cavity cold drinks take down temperature to an extent that false reading on thermometer is evident.
- This greatly affect on health records of patient and also possibly alter the care plan
- However after drinking hot drinks it might take a little long time to return baseline temperature of buccal cavity
Additional Information
Sites of measuring body temperature:-
- Oral
- Tympanic
- Axillary
- Rectal
- Temporal artery temperature
Temperature reading relations
- A normal axillary temperature is between 96.6° (35.9° C) and 98° F (36.7° C). The normal axillary temperature is usually a degree lower than the oral (by mouth) temperature. The axillary temperature may be as much as two degrees lower than the rectal temperature.
- A R
- -1 1 +1
Hospital acquired infection are also known as ?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 1 : Nosocomial infections
Fundamental Nursing Question 14 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFConcept:
- The nosocomial infection is an infection which a person can get from the the hospital after 48 hours of the admission. It's also called a hospital-acquired infection or a health-care associated infection. Hence option 1 is the Correct Answer.
Types
- Bacterial infections are mainly caused by the bacteria which are tiny living things that are too small to see. Most aren’t harmful indeed, but some can cause serious illness. Bacteria are the most common source of nosocomial infections. Common bacteria include E. coli and staph.
- Fungal infections are caused by the fungi a living things, like mushrooms, mold, and yeast. Some fungi can cause harmful contagious infections sometimes. The most common fungi that cause nosocomial infections are Candida (thrush) and Aspergillus.
- Viral infections are mainly caused by the Viruses which are are tiny germs that spread through the body by imitating your natural genetic code. They trick your body into making copies of them, just like the body makes copies of other cells. Viruses can cause severe sickness.
Additional Information
- Idiopathic disease is basically any disease with an unknown cause or mechanism of apparent spontaneous origin.
- Primary infection is the type of infection when first time people are exposed to and infected by a pathogen. During a primary infection, body has no innate defenses against the organism, such as antibodies.
- Iatrogenic infection is defined as an infection after medical or surgical management, whether or not the patient was hospitalized.
The Fifth Vital sign is
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 4 : Pain
Fundamental Nursing Question 15 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFConcept:
- Pain is considered to be the fifth vital sign.
- The four vital signs are:
- Temperature
- Respiration
- Blood pressure
- Heart rate or pulse
- The assessment of the vital signs provides baseline data of the patient.
- They provide initial information at the time of admission.
- A patient may be in distress, vital signs help to assess the condition.
Explanation:
- Pain is another sign signifying any bodily distress.
- Therefore, health care staff should always assess for any pain at the time of vital assessment.
- Pain can also alter the vital signs.
- For example, it can lead to an increase in blood pressure.
- Therefore, it should be a priority.