Basic Principles of Quantum Mechanics MCQ Quiz - Objective Question with Answer for Basic Principles of Quantum Mechanics - Download Free PDF
Last updated on Jul 15, 2025
Latest Basic Principles of Quantum Mechanics MCQ Objective Questions
Basic Principles of Quantum Mechanics Question 1:
The kinetic energies of an electron (𝑒) and a proton (𝑝) are 𝐸 and 3𝐸, respectively. Given that mass of a proton is 1836 times that of an electron, the ratio of their de Broglie wavelengths (𝜆𝑒/𝜆𝑝) is _______ (rounded off to two decimal places).
Answer (Detailed Solution Below) 74.10 - 74.30
Basic Principles of Quantum Mechanics Question 1 Detailed Solution
CONCEPT:
de Broglie Wavelength
- The de Broglie wavelength of a particle is given by the equation:
λ = h / p
where h is Planck's constant and p is the momentum of the particle. - For a particle with kinetic energy E, the momentum p is related to the kinetic energy by:
p = √(2mE)
where m is the mass of the particle. - Thus, the de Broglie wavelength becomes:
λ = h / √(2mE)
EXPLANATION:
- We are given:
- Kinetic energy of the electron is E and kinetic energy of the proton is 3E.
- Mass of the proton is 1836 times that of the electron, i.e., mp = 1836 me.
- For the electron, the de Broglie wavelength is:
λe = h / √(2meE)
-
λp = h / √(2mp3E) = h / √(2 * 1836 me * 3E)
- Taking the ratio of the wavelengths:
λe / λp = (h / √(2meE)) / (h / √(2 * 1836 me * 3E))
λe / λp = √(1836 * 3)
λe / λp = √(5508) ≈ 74.21
Therefore, the ratio of the de Broglie wavelengths (λe / λp) is approximately 74.21.
Basic Principles of Quantum Mechanics Question 2:
Wavefunctions and energies for a particle confined in a cubic box are 𝜓𝑛𝑥,𝑛𝑦,𝑛𝑧 and 𝐸𝑛𝑥,𝑛𝑦,𝑛𝑧, respectively. The functions 𝜙1, 𝜙2, 𝜙3, and 𝜙4 are written as linear combinations of 𝜓𝑛𝑥,𝑛𝑦,𝑛𝑧. Among these functions, the eigenfunction(s) of the Hamiltonian operator for this particle is/are
\(\phi_{1}=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \psi_{1,4,1}-\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \psi_{2,2,3}\)
\(\phi_{2}=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \psi_{1,5,1}+\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \psi_{3,3,3}\)
\(\phi_{3}=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \psi_{1,3,8}+\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \psi_{3,8,1}\)
\(\phi_{4}=\frac{1}{2} \psi_{3,3,1}+\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} \psi_{2,4,1}\)
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Basic Principles of Quantum Mechanics Question 2 Detailed Solution
CONCEPT:
Particle in a 3D Cubic Box
- The energy eigenfunctions for a particle in a 3D box with infinite potential walls are given as:
ψnx,ny,nz(x, y, z) = A sin(nxπx/L) sin(nyπy/L) sin(nzπz/L)
- The corresponding energy eigenvalues are:
Enx,ny,nz = (h² / 8mL²) × (nx² + ny² + nz²)
- Only those linear combinations of wavefunctions that have the same total quantum number sum (i.e., same energy) can be eigenfunctions of the Hamiltonian.
EXPLANATION:
- ϕ₁ = (1/√2)(ψ1,4,1 − ψ2,2,3)
- Energy of ψ1,4,1 = 1² + 4² + 1² = 18
- Energy of ψ2,2,3 = 2² + 2² + 3² = 17
- Different energies → Not an eigenfunction
- ϕ₂ = (1/√2)(ψ1,5,1 + ψ3,3,3)
- Energy of ψ1,5,1 = 1² + 5² + 1² = 27
- Energy of ψ3,3,3 = 3² + 3² + 3² = 27
- Same energy → Valid eigenfunction
- ϕ₃ = (1/√2)(ψ1,3,8 + ψ3,8,1)
- Energy of both = 1² + 3² + 8² = 27
- Same energy → Valid eigenfunction
- ϕ₄ = (1/2)ψ3,3,1 + (√3/2)ψ2,4,1
- Energy of ψ3,3,1 = 19, ψ2,4,1 = 21
- Different energies → Not an eigenfunction
Therefore, the eigenfunctions of the Hamiltonian operator are: ϕ₂ and ϕ₃ (Options 1 and 3).
Basic Principles of Quantum Mechanics Question 3:
The correct option with regard to the following statements is
(a) Time-independent Schrödinger equation can be exactly solved for Be2+.
(b) For a particle confined in a one-dimensional box of length l with infinite potential barriers, the trial variation function ϕ = \(\rm \left[\left(\frac{3}{l^{3}}\right)^{1 / 2} x\right]\) is not an acceptable trial wavefunction for 0 ≤ x ≤ 𝑙.
(c) Wavefunctions for system of Fermions must be anti-symmetric with respect to exchange of any two Fermions in the system.
(d) Born-Oppenheimer approximation can be used to separate the vibrational and rotational motion of a molecule.
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Basic Principles of Quantum Mechanics Question 3 Detailed Solution
CONCEPT:
- (a) Time-independent Schrödinger equation: Can be solved exactly only for hydrogenic atoms (single-electron systems). Be2+ is a two-electron system and hence requires approximation methods like Hartree-Fock.
- (b) Particle in a 1D box: The trial wavefunction must satisfy two conditions:
- Be continuous and single-valued.
- Satisfy boundary conditions: Ψ(0) = Ψ(l) = 0.
- (c) Fermions: Must obey the Pauli Exclusion Principle and have wavefunctions that are anti-symmetric under exchange of any two fermions.
- (d) Born-Oppenheimer Approximation: Separates electronic motion from nuclear motion, **but not** rotational and vibrational motions directly. It’s used to separate electronic and nuclear degrees of freedom.
EXPLANATION:
- Statement (a): False
- Be2+ is not a one-electron system; it has two electrons. Exact solution is not possible.
- Statement (b): True
- Given trial function: ϕ(x) = [(3l3)1/2 × x] does not satisfy Ψ(0) = 0 since at x = 0, the function is zero, but its normalization is problematic. The form also doesn’t vanish at x = l. Thus, it's unacceptable.
- Statement (c): True
- Fermionic wavefunctions are anti-symmetric under exchange of any two fermions. That’s a fundamental postulate of quantum mechanics.
- Statement (d): False
- Born-Oppenheimer approximation separates electronic and nuclear motion, not directly vibrational and rotational motions of nuclei.
Therefore, the correct option is Option 3: (a) False, (b) True, (c) True, (d) False.
Basic Principles of Quantum Mechanics Question 4:
Consider two non-interacting particles confined to a one-dimensional box with infinite potential barriers. Their wavefunctions are 𝜓1 and 𝜓2 and energies are E1 and E2, respectively. The INCORRECT statement(s) about this system is/are
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Basic Principles of Quantum Mechanics Question 4 Detailed Solution
CONCEPT:
Particle in a 1D Box (Infinite Potential Well)
- In quantum mechanics, a particle in a one-dimensional infinite potential well has discrete energy levels and corresponding wavefunctions.
- For two non-interacting particles:
- The total energy is the sum of individual energies: Etotal = E1 + E2
- The total wavefunction is the product of individual wavefunctions (not the sum): Ψtotal = ψ1 × ψ2
- The principle of superposition applies only to linear combinations of eigenfunctions for a **single** particle system, not multiple independent particles.
EXPLANATION:
- Statement 1: The total energy is E1 + E2 – Correct
- This is true for non-interacting systems: total energy is additive.
- Statement 2: The total wavefunction is ψ1 + ψ2 – Incorrect
- For two distinct, non-interacting particles, the correct form is a product: ψ1ψ2.
- Statement 3: The total energy is E1E2 – Incorrect
- This is physically meaningless in this context. Energies add, they do not multiply.
- Statement 4: The total wavefunction is ψ1ψ2 – Correct
- This is the standard treatment for two non-interacting particles in quantum mechanics.
Therefore, the incorrect statements are Option 2 and Option 3.
Basic Principles of Quantum Mechanics Question 5:
A correct statement, which always holds good, involving the zeroth-order (\(\rm E_0^0\)), first-order (\(\rm E_0^1\)) and second-order (\(\rm E_0^2\)) perturbed energies for the ground state is [E0 is the exact ground state energy]
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Basic Principles of Quantum Mechanics Question 5 Detailed Solution
CONCEPT:
Perturbation Theory – Ground State Energy Corrections
- The energy of a perturbed system is given by a power series expansion:
E = E0 + E1 + E2 + ...
- E0: zeroth-order (unperturbed) energy
- E1: first-order correction
- E2: second-order correction
Important Properties (for Ground State):
- E2 is always ≤ 0 (second-order correction is usually negative)
- Total corrected energy (E0 + E1) is always greater than or equal to the exact ground state energy:
E0 + E1 ≥ E0
- E0 + E1 + E2 > E0
Not always true, since E2 is negative and may reduce the total below E0. - E0 + E1 > 0
Irrelevant — total energy being greater than 0 is not a guaranteed property. - E0 + E1 ≥ E0
This is always true — based on the variational principle and behavior of perturbation expansion. - E2 > 0
Incorrect — E2 is always negative or zero in the ground state.
The correct answer is \(\rm E_0^0+E_0^1\ge0\)
Top Basic Principles of Quantum Mechanics MCQ Objective Questions
If \(⟨α|\hat{S}_x \hat{S}_y - \hat{S}_y \hat{S}_x| α ⟩ = ih^2a\), where \(\hat{S}_x\) and \(\hat{S}_y\) are spin angular momentum operators and |α〉 is spin up eigen function, then the value of 'a' is _______. (Round off to one decimal place)
Answer (Detailed Solution Below) 0.5
Basic Principles of Quantum Mechanics Question 6 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFExplanation:-
Angular Momentum Operators in Quantum Mechanics is a mathematical representation of the angular momentum linked with the physical state of the system. For example, Lx, Ly, L z.
Calculation:-
For, Angular Momentum Operators ⇒ [Lx, Ly] = i h L z , [Ly, L z] = i h Lx , [L z, Lx] = i h Ly.
For Spin Angular Momentum Operators ⇒ [Sx, SY] = i h Sz, [Sy, Sz] = i h Sx, [Sz, Sx] = i h Sy.
\(⟨α|\hat{S}_x \hat{S}_y - \hat{S}_y \hat{S}_x| α ⟩ = ih^2a\)
⇒ ˂ a | Sx Sy - Sy Sx | a˃
⇒ ˂ a | [ Sx ,Sy ] | a ˃
⇒ ˂ a | i h Sz | a ˃
⇒ i h ˂ a |Sz| a ˃
⇒ i h x 1/2 h ˂a | a˃
⇒ 1 / 2 i h2 = 0.5 i h2.
Acceptable wavefunctions for a quantum particle must be:
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Basic Principles of Quantum Mechanics Question 7 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFConcept:
- In one dimension, wave functions are often denoted by the symbol ψ(x,t).
- They are functions of the coordinate x and the time t. But ψ(x,t) is not a real, but a complex function, the Schrodinger equation does not have real, but complex solutions.
- The wave function of a particle, at a particular time, contains all the information that anybody at that time can have about the particle.
- But the wave function itself has no physical interpretation. It is not measurable. However, the square of the absolute value of the wave function has a physical interpretation.
- In one dimension, we interpret |ψ(x,t)|2 as a probability density, a probability per unit length of finding the particle at a time t at position x.
- The probability of finding the particle at time t in an interval ∆x about the position x is proportional to |ψ(x,t)|2∆x.
- This interpretation is possible because the square of the magnitude of a complex number is real.
Explanation:
- For the probability interpretation to make sense, the wave function must satisfy certain conditions. We should be able to find the particle somewhere, we should only find it at one place at a particular instant, and the total probability of finding it anywhere should be one. This leads to the requirements listed below.
- The wave function must be single valued and continuous. The probability of finding the particle at time t in an interval ∆x must be some number between 0 and 1.
- We must be able to normalize the wave function. We must be able to choose an arbitrary multiplicative constant in such a way, so that if we sum up all possible values ∑|ψ(xi,t)|2∆xi we must obtain 1.
- An acceptable wave function may be odd as well as even.
So, the correct options are single valued and continuous.
For a model system of three non-interacting electrons confined in a two dimensional square box of length L, the ground state energy in units of \(\left( {\frac{h^2}{{8mL^2}}}\right)\) is
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Basic Principles of Quantum Mechanics Question 8 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFConcept:
- For a particle in a 2D box, the wavefunction is given by
\(\Psi {n_x},{n_y} = N\sin \left( {{{{n_x}\pi x} \over L}} \right)\sin \left( {{{{n_y}\pi y} \over L}} \right)\), where N is the normalization constant.
- The energy of a particle in a 2D box of side length l is given by,
\(E = {{({n_x}^2 + {n_y}^2){h^2}} \over {8m{l^2}}}\), where nx and ny is the quantum number.
Explanation:
- The three non-interacting electrons can be arranged in a 2D square box as follows:
(1, 2) (2, 1) 1 - \(\rm E_1=1\times5\frac{h^2}{8ml^2}\)
(1, 1) \(\rm E_2=2\times\frac{2h^2}{8ml^2}\)
\(\rm E_T=\frac{9h^2}{8ml^2}=E_1+E_2\)
- In the ground state (g.s), two electrons can be placed in a singly degenerated energy state (1,1). The energy is given by,
\({E_1} = 2 \times {{(1 + 1){h^2}} \over {8m{l^2}}}\)
\( = {{4{h^2}} \over {8m{l^2}}}\)
- In the first exited state, one electron can be placed in a doubly degenerated energy level (2,1) and (1,2). The energy is given by,
\({E_2} = {{({2^2} + 1){h^2}} \over {8m{l^2}}}\)
\( = {{5{h^2}} \over {8m{l^2}}}\)
The energy of the system is thus,
\( = {{4{h^2}} \over {8m{l^2}}} + {{5{h^2}} \over {8m{l^2}}}\)
\( = {{9{h^2}} \over {8m{l^2}}}\)
Conclusion:
Hence, the ground state energy in units of \(\left( {\frac{h^2}{{8mL^2}}}\right)\) is 9
The de Broglie wavelength of an argon atom (mass = 40 amu) traveling at a speed of 250 m s−1 (rounded off to one decimal place) is _______ picometers. [N = 6.022 × 1023; h = 6.626 × 10−34 kg m2 s −1 ]
Answer (Detailed Solution Below) 39.6 - 40.5
Basic Principles of Quantum Mechanics Question 9 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFExplanation:
de Broglie wavelength of electrons:
- Louis de Broglie theorized that not only light possesses both wave and particle properties, but rather particles with mass - such as electrons - do as well,i.e. matter has dual nature.
- The wavelength of material waves is also known as the de Broglie wavelength.
- de Broglie wavelength (λ) of electrons can be calculated from Plancks constant h divided by the momentum of the particle
- So, according to de Broglie, every object has a dual nature- a particle and a wave nature whose wavelength is given by
\(\lambda = \frac{h}{{mv}}\)
or \(\lambda = {h\over p};p=mv\)
where m is the mass of the particle,v is the velocity of the particles and h is the Planck's constant. - The wave nature is predominant in particles of small mass like electrons and negligible in bodies of large masses.
- Waves are dispersed over a wide region and not confined.
Calculation:
Given:
- The speed of Argon atom = 250 m s−1
- h = 6.626 × 10−34 kg m2 s −1
- Mass of Argon = 40 amu = 40 g/mol
- The wavelength of argon =? in pm.
NOTE: We have to find the wavelength in picometers, so we have to convert everything into the same units before calculation. So, g is converted to kg.
- Hence, the wavelength =
\(\lambda = \rm \frac{{6.626{\rm{ }} × \;10^{ - 34} \ kg m^2 s ^{−1}}}{{250m/s × 40 × 10^ {- 3} \ kgmol^{-1}}}\)
Now, for converting moles to numbers, we have to divide the atomic mass of Argon by Avogadro's number, so the equation becomes:
\(\rm \lambda = \frac{{6.626{\rm{ }} × \;10^{ - 34} \ kg m^2 \ s ^{−1}6.022 × 10^{23}mol^{-1}}}{{250m/s × 40 × 10^ {- 3} \ kgmol^{-1}}}\)
The value of wavelength now comes as: 00399 × 10-8 m = 39.9 × 1012 m = 39.9 pm.
Hence, the wavelength of the argon atom is 39.9 pm.
Consider an electron (me = 9.1 × 10-31 kg) having energy 13.6 eV, confined in an infinite potential well. If the potential energy inside the well is zero, the expectation value for the square of the electron speed, (v2), is
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Basic Principles of Quantum Mechanics Question 10 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFConcept:
- Average Energy/ Expectation value of energy of an electron is the sum of expectation value of kinetics and potential energy and it is written as
\(
\(where,\\
\(
\(
- Also, expectation value of kinetic energy of electron is related to mass of electron (me) and the velocity (v) as:
\(
Explanation:
According to the question, the potential energy of the particle/electron inside the well is 0. So, it can be concluded the given energy value is the kinetic energy of the electron
\(
\(
The above relation can be rearranged to get the expectation value of square of velocity as follows:
\(
given,
\(
\(m_e=9.1\times10^{-31}Kg \)
Equating the values in relation(1), will give:
\(
\(
Conclusion:
Hence, the expectation value of square of velocity of electron confined in the infinite potential well is \(4.7\times10^{12}m^2s^{-2} \)
The commutator, [x, p2x] is equivalent to
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Basic Principles of Quantum Mechanics Question 11 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFConcept:
For linear and position momentum:
[x̂, p̂x] = iℏ ....(1)
[p̂x, x̂] = -iℏ ...(2)
[x̂n, p̂x] = nxn-1 [x, p̂x] ....(3)
[p̂xn, x̂] = npxn-1[p̂x, x̂] .....(4)
Explanation:
Given → [x, px2]
→ Now using equation (4) and (1),
[x, px2] = 2 \(p_x^{2-1}\) [x, px]
= 2 px iℏ
Conclusion:-
∴ option '2' is correct i.e. [x, px2] = 2iℏpx
Given below is a conjugated system of 11 carbon atoms
Assume the average C-C bond length to be 1.5Å and treat the system as a 1-dimensional box. The frequency of radiation required to cause a transition from the ground state of the system to the first excited state (take \(\frac{h^2}{8m}\) = k) is
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Basic Principles of Quantum Mechanics Question 12 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFConcept:-
A 1-dimensional (1D) box, also known as a particle in a one-dimensional box or a particle in a box, is a simple quantum mechanical model that describes the behavior of a particle confined to move within a one-dimensional region, typically between two walls or barriers. This model is often used in introductory quantum mechanics courses to illustrate the quantization of energy levels and wavefunctions in a confined system.
Given:
\({h^2 \over 8m} = k\)
The average bond length of C-C = 1.5 Å
Explanation:-
Bond length for the whole conjugated system having 10 bonds are
= 1.5 x10
=15 Å
We know that,
\(∆E=hν={(∆n)^2}{h^2 \over 8ma^2}\)
\(∆E={(∆n)^2}{k \over 15^2}\)
In the given conjugated system 10π electrons are arranged in the following manner -
The 10 π electrons make the ground state and the first transition state occurs at minimum transition level at n= 6.
\(∆E={(6^2 -5^2)}{k \over 225}\)
\(∆E={11k \over 225}\)
- Now, the frequency required to cause a transition from the ground state of the system to the first excited state is,
\(∆E=hν={11k \over 225}\)
\(ν={11k \over 225 h}\)
Conclusion:-
Therefore, the frequency of radiation required to cause a transition from the ground state to the first excited state of the system is \(\frac{11\,k}{225\,h}\).
The degeneracy of the state having energy \(\rm\frac{27 h^2}{8mL^2}\) for a particle in a 3-D cubic box of length L is
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Basic Principles of Quantum Mechanics Question 13 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFConcept:
In a three-dimensional cubic box, the energy of a particle is given by the equation:
\(E = h²(n₁² + n₂² + n₃²) / 8mL²\)
where: E is the energy, h is Planck's constant, n₁, n₂, and n₃ are the quantum numbers associated with the particle (they can be any positive integer), m is the mass of the particle, and L is the length of the box.
Explanation:
You're given that the energy E is 27h2/ 8mL2 . Setting this equal to the energy equation, we get:
\(27h² / 8mL² = h²(n₁² + n₂² + n₃²) / 8mL²\)
Solving for n₁² + n₂² + n₃², we find that it equals 27. This means that the sum of the squares of the three quantum numbers equals 27.
The possible sets of quantum numbers (n1, n2, n3) that satisfy this equation are (3, 3, 3), (1, 1, 5), (1, 5, 1), and (5, 1, 1). Each set of quantum numbers corresponds to a different state of the particle, so there are four states that have this energy.
Conclusion:-
Therefore, the degeneracy of the state with energy \(27h² / 8mL²\) is 4
For an electron in 1s orbital of He+, the average value of r, (r) is
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Basic Principles of Quantum Mechanics Question 14 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFConcept:
- The average value in Quantum Mechanics is the average result obtained when a large number of measurements are made on identical systems or systems in the same state.
- For an observable quantity A, the average value or expectation value is given by,
\(\left\langle {\rm{A}} \right\rangle {\rm{ = }}\int {{{\rm{\Psi }}^{\rm{*}}}{\rm{A\Psi d\tau }}} \)
Explanation:
- The normalized ground state wave function for a one-electron system like an H atom (He+) is:
\({\Psi _{1s}} = N{e^{ - {r \over {Z{a_ \circ }}}}}\) where, N is the normalization constant and Z is the atomic number of the nuclei.
- The average value or expectation value of r is given by,
\(\left\langle r \right\rangle = \int {{\Psi ^ * }_nr{\Psi _n}} d\tau \)
- Now, for an electron in 1s orbital of He+, the average value of r, (r) is given by,
\(\left\langle r \right\rangle = \int {{\Psi ^ * }_{1s}r{\Psi _{1s}}} d\tau \), where \(d\tau = {r^2}dr\sin \theta d\theta d\phi \)
\( = N\int_0^ \propto {r3{e^{ - {{2r} \over {Z{a_ \circ }}}}}} dr\int_0^\pi {sin\theta d\theta } \int_0^{2\pi } {d\phi } \)
\( = {{3{a_ \circ }} \over {2Z}}\)
- Now, for the He+ ion the atomic number
(Z) = 2.
- Thus, the average value of r, \(\left\langle r \right\rangle \) for He+ ion is
\( = {3 \over 4}{a_ \circ }\).
Conclusion:
Hence, for an electron in 1s orbital of He+, the average value of r, (r) is \({3 \over 4}{a_ \circ }\)
The raising and lowering operators are denoted as L+ and L-, respectively. The correct commutator relation between angular momentum (L) and its various components (Lx, Ly and Lz) is
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Basic Principles of Quantum Mechanics Question 15 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFCONCEPT:
Commutator Relations Between Total Angular Momentum and Raising/Lowering Operators
- In quantum mechanics, the raising (\(L_+\)) and lowering (\(L_-\)) operators change the magnetic quantum number m, but they do not affect the total angular momentum \(L^2\).
- The raising operator \(L_+\) increases the magnetic quantum number m by 1, and the lowering operator \(L_-\) decreases it by 1.
- The commutator between the total angular momentum \(L^2\) and these raising and lowering operators is zero because applying these operators does not change the total angular momentum magnitude \(L^2\).
EXPLANATION:
- The total angular momentum operator \(L^2\) represents the magnitude of the angular momentum vector, while the raising and lowering operators only affect the projection along the z-axis (i.e.,\( L_z\)).
- The commutator of \(L^2\) with the raising and lowering operators is zero because they do not affect the magnitude of the total angular momentum. Instead, they modify only the \(L_z\) component:
- \([L^2, L_+] = 0\) \([L^2, L_-] = 0\)
CALCULATION:
- The total angular momentum operator \(L^2\) is defined as:
- \(L^2 = L_x^2 + L_y^2 + L_z^2\)
- The raising and lowering operators are defined in terms of the angular momentum components \(L_x\) and \(L_y\):
- \(L_+ = L_x + iL_y\) \(L_- = L_x - iL_y\)
- Now, we calculate the commutator \([L^2, L_+]\) by expanding it:
- \([L^2, L_+] = [L_x^2 + L_y^2 + L_z^2, L_x + iL_y]\)
- This can be broken into three parts:
- \([L_x^2, L_+] = 0\) \([L_y^2, L_+] = 0\) \([L_z^2, L_+] = 0\)
- Therefore, the total commutator \([L^2, L_+]\) results in:
- \([L^2, L_+] = 0\)
- Similarly, for the lowering operator \(L_-\), we follow the same steps:
- Breaking this into parts also gives zero for each commutator:\([L^2, L_-] = [L_x^2 + L_y^2 + L_z^2, L_x - iL_y]\)
- \([L_x^2, L_-] = 0\) \([L_y^2, L_-] = 0\) \([L_z^2, L_-] = 0\)
- Breaking this into parts also gives zero for each commutator:\([L^2, L_-] = [L_x^2 + L_y^2 + L_z^2, L_x - iL_y]\)
- Thus, the final commutator is:
- \([L^2, L_-] = 0\)
CONCLUSION:
The correct commutator relation is: \( [L^2, L_+] = [L^2, L_-] = 0\).